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I have to confess I do not know the precise details of the French law in question. If the law in question is banning the covering of a person's face (be it by means of a scarf, burqa, hoodie, balaclava etc) in public rather than specifically banning the burqa it is not racist. If may indirectly discriminate against a particular religious group but if the grounds for the law are solid (public safety/security) then the law will, correctly, override the indirect discrimination. A balancing act as ever. If the law singles out the burqa and permits people to cover their faces by other means then the law would be racist.