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My understanding, Winston, was that King John himself applied to the pope to have the Magna Carta revoked. Was that not the case? The interdict came later and, again as I understand it, only served to make any religious service invalid in the eyes of Rome, for example marriages and funerals, and not for any other purpose. Please correct me if I am wrong, I am sure you will. (BTW If the interdict were still binding how would, say, Henry VIII have been able to contract a valid marriage?).