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I don't know the full facts about the allegations against him but I will say that those who are motivated against him primarily because he was representing vicrims of alleged abuses by the military should ask themselves whether the same principles should apply to allegations of misbehaviour by the Police. Or in fact should people be allowed to use the law to take action against the state at all? Is this rule of law nonsense is a bit out of datempts. We've surely moved on from the 13th Century haven't we?

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