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In 1975 I was taught by a lecturer at an institution of learning, and I will name neither, that there were two possible reasons why the law of market overt did not apply in Wales.

One - the wrong one - was that there were no stolen goods in Wales.

The other - the right one - was that there were no bona fide purchasers in Wales.

I don't think that anyone would dare make that joke nowadays even if market overt had not been abolished!

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