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No, Law Gazette. The evidence does not establish that at White & Case, women are ‘paid’ less than men.

The evidence establishes that, at White & Case, women collectively EARN less than men on average.

If you want to prove, from this, that women are being paid less, you would have to prove that the work done by both groups is equivalent per capita.

Has this been done? No.

How many times must this point be paid be made before headlines such as the instant one can reasonably be considered defamatory?

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