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In France the daughter would automatically be entitled to one half of her late mother's estate. That is if those who stood to gain thereby failed to establish that she had shown 'ingratitude'.

Also in France if an elderly person's assets cease to be able to pay for care home fees, his children have to pay them and are legally liable for them.

Is this really what A P Herbert, a Liberal MP, really intended when he promoted the first Family Provision Act in 1938?

And yes, or rather no, no one other than the lawyers involved will get a penny piece out of this litigation, which is perhaps as much as each of the parties involved deserves...

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