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Rayner, apologies for labouring the point but you are still failing to see the difference between the mortgage which the purported seller/fraudster had on the property, and the new mortgage in favour of the buyers lender which the new buyer should have charged on the property to secure the funds for his purchase. The article makes no reference to the sellers mortgage. The article is referring to the new mortgage which the buyer obtained from his own lender. The buyer has no obligation for the sellers mortgage, because he doesn't own the property and therefore is not responsible for charges secured on the property by the seller.

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