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Does he say he is Tom?

I think its the view of the public isn't it?

Generally they think there is this sort of residual "fairness'' that can trump any statute. Perhaps the is to do with the publication of the Human Rights Act ?

And what do you actually mean by the Common Law?

You could read Hart, Devlin, Dworkin, and a good measure of the small print in Lloyds "Introduction (?)" To Jurisprudence. You would still not know what the Common Law was. So I suppose there is a grain of truth in what John says below. Suppose a Judge interprets a statute against the literal interpretation because they think it unfair? Or uses the Courts inherent Jurisdiction to sideline it?

Is that making Common Law supreme?

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