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I think that the issue is that the charge that was on the property (i.e. the owner's mortgage) has been redeemed in accordance with the undertaking. So the solicitor did comply with that undertaking.
However, the buyer is not allowed to take ownership of the property, as the owner didn't actually sell it, he just had his mortgage redeemed.
So the buyer now does not have a property, but was lent money by his lender and this must now be repaid (though chances are the solicitor will have to foot the bill).

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