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I don't understand the tendency to assume that any disparity between two groups of people (in this case, men and women) is a consequence of discrimination or unconscious bias. That's certainly a possibility, bur it's far from the only explanation. Given the legal protections in place (not to mention the career-ending social consequences of being branded as a person or organization that unlawfully discriminates) isn't it at least as likely the disparity reflects different preferences? Why do we assume that groups of people all have (or should have) the same preferences and career aspirations?