I was disappointed to hear Lord Woolf, while being interviewed recently by John Humphrys on the 'Today' programme, referring to an 'ex parte injunction'.

While I appreciate that this delightful Latin phrase trips off the tongue easily, surely its use, and by this eminent judge in particular, flies in the face of the importance I thought he attributed to ensuring that lawyers do not speak in code and so become unintelligible to members of the public.

Or is it that the judiciary are exempt from this requirement?

W M Fudge, Claytons, Luton